4 Jan
2006
4 Jan
'06
11:29 a.m.
Hi
If it was some IP you bought or got from someone else,
I don't think it would qualify. If you did the work your
self, then it is valid.
Think in terms of:
I build my PC by plugging these cards in.
versus:
I build my cpu using FPGA for my alu and instruction
decoder. I used my own MISC instruction set.
later
Dwight
From: "Chuck Guzis" <cclist at
sydex.com>
What qualifies a CPU as "homebuilt"? Would an FPGA implementation qualify
as one? If not, why not? If FPGA is disqualifed, how about CPLD/GAL/PAL?
I'm just trying to understand the rules of this thing.
Cheers,
Chuck
4 Jan
4 Jan
12:53 p.m.
On 1/4/2006 at 11:29 AM Dwight Elvey wrote:
If it was some IP you bought or got from someone
else,
I don't think it would qualify. If you did the work your
self, then it is valid.
Think in terms of:
I build my PC by plugging these cards in.
versus:
I build my cpu using FPGA for my alu and instruction
decoder. I used my own MISC instruction set.
Okay, so where does "I put together the logic (or used an FPGA) but
implemented someone else's instruction set (e.g. PDP-11, VAX, 6502, Z80,
etc.) fit in?
Cheers,
Chuck
1:58 p.m.
Chuck Guzis wrote:
Okay, so where does "I put together the logic (or
used an FPGA) but
implemented someone else's instruction set (e.g. PDP-11, VAX, 6502, Z80,
etc.) fit in?
Technical -- Reverse Engineering.
Layman -- Piracy.
Cheers,
Chuck
This assumes the PDP-11, 6502 and Z80.
6928
days inactive
6928
days old
2 comments
3 participants
participants (3)
-
bfranchuk＠jetnet.ab.ca -
cclist＠sydex.com -
dwight.elvey＠amd.com